I'm looking at ISPConfig 3 and have a small VPS that I want to install and test it on. I have been using DirectAdmin for the last few years and am happy with it but I don't really host a lot of sites and mainly use it for easier website management for myself and my family. That said, I do host a couple of sites for clients. My question... When setting up ISPConfig, it asks for the FQDN. I'm not sure if this should resolve or not from a remote computer. For example, let's say I own domain.com. Sould I setup the server as: server1.domain.com and that if you type that in from a remote computer that it would resolve to my server, or do I make it so that domain.com resolves but the server's hostname is server1.domain.com I've always been a bit confused with this. I know this isn't ISPConfig specific but someone else helped me setup my server with DA so I am just trying to figure things out.
For testing purposes it's ok if domains/hostnames cannot be resolved. Please use server1.domain.com instead of just domain.com for the hostname because otherwise you will get problems with Postfix. If domains cannot be resolved, you can modify the client PC's hosts file as long as you're testing: http://www.howtoforge.com/forums/showthread.php?t=432&highlight=hosts+file+windows
Thank you for the response. I am familiar with how to do it personally (hosts file). However, it is just the server1. subdomain part that I'm confused with. I know that when the system is live that domain.com must resolve to the server for it to work. However, I'm not sure if server1.domain.com should resolve or if the server1. part is just for local use.
I think you are thinking only in the web service but like falko said the mail service need fdqn. See http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5321#section-2.3.5 Cheers
Okay... Not sure if I'm being clear here. My point is, does the hostname that I pick for the machine matter? Let's say the following is true: domain.com --> I own this domain domain.com --> resolve to 1.2.3.4 www.domain.com --> resolves to 1.2.3.4 ftp.domain.com --> resolves to 1.2.3.4 mail.domain.com --> resolves to 1.2.3.4 server1.domain.com --> NO A Record. Does NOT resolve. Now, when installing ISPConfig 3 and setting up the server, can I set the hostname to server1.domain.com or does it have to resolve? (i.e. mail.domain.com) Basically, I'm just trying to wrap my head around FQDN. Does FQDN only mean that it has to be in the form of subdomain.domain.com or does it mean that it must resolve. There are just so many terms flying around and I've never been able to wrap my head around this part. Also... I know that Falko mentioned that Postfix will have errors if it doesn't resolve. But, couldn't you put server1.domain.com that doesn't resolve and then configure Postfix to use mail.domain.com? I mean what happens when you use a mail server that is not on the same server as ISPConfig 3?
It's better if the hostname resolves because otherwise other mailservers might refuse emails from the server. But s you said, it's also possible to use a different hostname just for Postfix.
